156-215.80 | Up To The Immediate Present 156-215.80 Guidance 2021

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NEW QUESTION 1

How do you configure an alert in SmartView Monitor?

  • A. An alert cannot be configured in SmartView Monitor.
  • B. By choosing the Gateway, and Configure Thresholds.
  • C. By right-clicking on the Gateway, and selecting Properties.
  • D. By right-clicking on the Gateway, and selecting System Information.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2

You work as a security administrator for a large company. CSO of your company has attended a security conference where he has learnt how hackers constantly modify their strategies and techniques to evade detection and reach corporate resources. He wants to make sure that his company has the right protections in place. Check Point has been selected for the security vendor. Which Check Point products protects BEST against malware and zero-day attacks while ensuring quick delivery of safe content to your users?

  • A. IPS and Application Control
  • B. IPS, anti-virus and anti-bot
  • C. IPS, anti-virus and e-mail security
  • D. SandBlast

Answer: D

Explanation:
SandBlast Zero-Day Protection
Hackers constantly modify their strategies and techniques to evade detection and reach corporate resources. Zero-day exploit protection from Check Point provides a deeper level of inspection so you can prevent more malware and zero-day attacks, while ensuring quick delivery of safe content to your users.

NEW QUESTION 3

Fill in the blank: A(n) _____ rule is created by an administrator and is located before the first and before last rules in the Rule Base.

  • A. Firewall drop
  • B. Explicit
  • C. Implicit accept
  • D. Implicit drop
  • E. Implied

Answer: E

Explanation:
This is the order that rules are enforced:
First Implied Rule: You cannot edit or delete this rule and no explicit rules can be placed before it.
Explicit Rules: These are rules that you create.
Before Last Implied Rules: These implied rules are applied before the last explicit rule.
Last Explicit Rule: We recommend that you use the Cleanup rule as the last explicit rule.
Last Implied Rules: Implied rules that are configured as Last in Global Properties.
Implied Drop Rule: Drops all packets without logging.

NEW QUESTION 4

Fill in the blanks. In ______ NAT, the _______ is translated.

  • A. Hide; source
  • B. Static; source
  • C. Simple; source
  • D. Hide; destination

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 5

Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now is very fast.

  • A. New Smart-1 appliances double the physical memory install
  • B. Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results
  • C. SmartConsole now queries results directly from the Security Gateway
  • D. The amount of logs been store is less than the usual in older versions

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6

What component of R80 Management is used for indexing?

  • A. DBSync
  • B. API Server
  • C. fwm
  • D. SOLR

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7

You have just installed your Gateway and want to analyze the packet size distribution of your traffic with SmartView Monitor.
156-215.80 dumps exhibit
Unfortunately, you get the message:
“There are no machines that contain Firewall Blade and SmartView Monitor”.
What should you do to analyze the packet size distribution of your traffic? Give the BEST answer.
156-215.80 dumps exhibit

  • A. Purchase the SmartView Monitor license for your Security Management Server.
  • B. Enable Monitoring on your Security Management Server.
  • C. Purchase the SmartView Monitor license for your Security Gateway.
  • D. Enable Monitoring on your Security Gateway.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8

Which default user has full read/write access?

  • A. Monitor
  • B. Altuser
  • C. Administrator
  • D. Superuser

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9

What is the SOLR database for?

  • A. Used for full text search and enables powerful matching capabilities
  • B. Writes data to the database and full text search
  • C. Serves GUI responsible to transfer request to the DLE server
  • D. Enables powerful matching capabilities and writes data to the database

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10

You have configured SNX on the Security Gateway. The client connects to the Security Gateway and the user enters the authentication credentials. What must happen after authentication that allows the client to connect to the Security Gateway's VPN domain?

  • A. SNX modifies the routing table to forward VPN traffic to the Security Gateway.
  • B. An office mode address must be obtained by the client.
  • C. The SNX client application must be installed on the client.
  • D. Active-X must be allowed on the client.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 11

Fill in the blank: To create policy for traffic to or from a particular location, use the_____ .

  • A. DLP shared policy
  • B. Geo policy shared policy
  • C. Mobile Access software blade
  • D. HTTPS inspection

Answer: B

Explanation:
Shared Policies
The Shared Policies section in the Security Policies shows the policies that are not in a Policy package. T are shared between all Policy packages.
Shared policies are installed with the Access Control Policy. Software Blade
Description Mobile Access
Launch Mobile Access policy in a SmartConsole. Configure how your remote users access internal resources, such as their email accounts, when they are mobile.
DLP Launch Data Loss Prevention policy in a SmartConsole. Configure advanced tools to automatically identify data that must not go outside the network, to block the leak, and to educate users.
Geo Policy
Create a policy for traffic to or from specific geographical or political locations. References:

NEW QUESTION 12

Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

  • A. Slow path
  • B. Firewall path
  • C. Medium path
  • D. Accelerated path

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 13

How many sessions can be opened on the Management Server at the same time?

  • A. Unlimited, One per each licensed Gateway
  • B. One
  • C. Unlimited, Multiple per administrator
  • D. Unlimited, One per administrator

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 14

Which command can you use to verify the number of active concurrent connections?

  • A. fw conn all
  • B. fw ctl pst pstat
  • C. show all connections
  • D. show connections

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 15

Joey wants to configure NTP on R80 Security Management Server. He decided to do this via WebUI. What is the correct address to access the Web UI for Gaia platform via browser?

  • A. https://<Device_IP_Address>
  • B. https://<Device_IP_Address>:443
  • C. https://<Device_IP_Address>:10000
  • D. https://<Device_IP_Address>:4434

Answer: A

Explanation:
Access to Web UI Gaia administration interface, initiate a connection from a browser to the default administration IP address: Logging in to the WebUI
Logging in
To log in to the WebUI:
Enter this URL in your browser: https://<Gaia IP address>
Enter your user name and password. References:

NEW QUESTION 16

Which one of these features is NOT associated with the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control Blade?

  • A. Detects and blocks malware by correlating multiple detection engines before users are affected.
  • B. Configure rules to limit the available network bandwidth for specified users or groups.
  • C. Use UserCheck to help users understand that certain websites are against the company’s security policy.
  • D. Make rules to allow or block applications and Internet sites for individual applications, categories, and risk levels.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 17

Which of these components does NOT require a Security Gateway R77 license?

  • A. Security Management Server
  • B. Check Point Gateway
  • C. SmartConsole
  • D. SmartUpdate upgrading/patching

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 18

Fill the blank. IT is Best Practice to have a _____ rule at the end of each policy layer.

  • A. Explicit Drop
  • B. Implied Drop
  • C. Explicit Cleanup
  • D. Implicit Drop

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 19

Which Check Point software blade provides visibility of users, groups and machines while also providing access control through identity-based policies?

  • A. Firewall
  • B. Identity Awareness
  • C. Application Control
  • D. URL Filtering

Answer: B

Explanation:
Check Point Identity Awareness Software Blade provides granular visibility of users, groups and machines, providing unmatched application and access control through the creation of accurate, identity-based policies. Centralized management and monitoring allows for policies to be managed from a single, unified console.

NEW QUESTION 20

Which limitation of CoreXL is overcome by using (mitigated by) Multi-Queue?

  • A. There is no traffic queue to be handled
  • B. Several NICs can use one traffic queue by one CPU
  • C. Each NIC has several traffic queues that are handled by multiple CPU cores
  • D. Each NIC has one traffic queue that is handled by one CPU

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 21

Which two Identity Awareness commands are used to support identity sharing?

  • A. Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)
  • B. Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)
  • C. Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)
  • D. Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 22

Which of the following commands is used to verify license installation?

  • A. Cplic verify license
  • B. Cplic print
  • C. Cplic show
  • D. Cplic license

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 23

What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy Layer?

  • A. URL Filtering and Network
  • B. Network and Threat Prevention
  • C. Application Control and URL Filtering
  • D. Network and Application Control

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 24

What is the default method for destination NAT?

  • A. Destination side
  • B. Source side
  • C. Server side
  • D. Client side

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 25

When using Monitored circuit VRRP, what is a priority delta?

  • A. When an interface fails the priority changes to the priority delta
  • B. When an interface fails the delta claims the priority
  • C. When an interface fails the priority delta is subtracted from the priority
  • D. When an interface fails the priority delta decides if the other interfaces takes over

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 26

How would you deploy TE250X Check Point appliance just for email traffic and in-line mode without a Check Point Security Gateway?

  • A. Install appliance TE250X on SpanPort on LAN switch in MTA mode
  • B. Install appliance TE250X in standalone mode and setup MTA
  • C. You can utilize only Check Point Cloud Services for this scenario
  • D. It is not possible, always Check Point SGW is needed to forward emails to SandBlast appliance

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 27

What is the default time length that Hit Count Data is kept?

  • A. 3 month
  • B. 4 weeks
  • C. 12 months
  • D. 6 months

Answer: A

Explanation:
Keep Hit Count data up to - Select one of the time range options. The default is 6 months. Data is kept in the Security Management Server database for this period and is shown in the Hits column.

NEW QUESTION 28

During the Check Point Stateful Inspection Process, for packets that do not pass Firewall Kernel Inspection and are rejected by the rule definition, packets are:

  • A. Dropped without sending a negative acknowledgment
  • B. Dropped without logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment
  • C. Dropped with negative acknowledgment
  • D. Dropped with logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 29

Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides comprehensive against malicious and unwanted network traffic, focusing on application and server vulnerabilities?

  • A. Anti-Virus
  • B. IPS
  • C. Anti-Spam
  • D. Anti-bot

Answer: B

Explanation:
The IPS Software Blade provides a complete Intrusion Prevention System security solution, providing comprehensive network protection against malicious and unwanted network traffic, including:
Malware attacks
Dos and DDoS attacks
Application and server vulnerabilities
Insider threats
Unwanted application traffic, including IM and P2P

NEW QUESTION 30

What Check Point technologies deny or permit network traffic?

  • A. Application Control DLP
  • B. Packet Filtering, Stateful Inspection, Application Layer Firewall
  • C. ACL SandBlast, MPT
  • D. IPS, Mobile Threat Protection

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 31
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