1Z0-052 | All About Approved 1Z0-052 pdf


Q11. In which situation would you use static database registration for a listener?

A. When multiple databases are to be registered with the listener

B. When DBAs need to connect remotely to start up the database instance

C. When users need to connect the database instance using the host naming method

D. When the database instance that is to be registered with the listener is configured in shared server mode

Answer: B

Q12. You execute this command to drop the ITEM table, which has the primary key referred in the ORDERS table:

SQL> DROP TABLE scott.item CASCADE CONSTRAINTS PURGE;

Which two statements are true about the effect of the command? (Choose two.)

A. No flashback is possible to bring back the ITEM table.

B. The ORDERS table is dropped along with the ITEM table.

C. The dependent referential integrity constraints in the ORDERS table are disabled.

D. The dependent referential integrity constraints in the ORDERS table are removed.

E. The table definition of the ITEM table and associated indexes are placed in the recycle bin.

Answer: AD

Q13. Your database is configured in shared server mode. However, your senior DBA asks you to modify the value of the PRIVATE_SGA limit in the profile of the users.

What could be the reason for this?

A. To limit the User Global Area (UGA) memory allocated to a session from the SGA

B. To limit the amount of memory to be used for the dispatcher queue of a session in SGA

C. To limit the amount of memory to be used for the request pool in System Global Area (SGA)

D. To control the amount of memory allocated in SGA for the local variables for each shared server process

Answer: A

Q14. You have two database servers SEMP and SACCT. The database in the SEMP server maintains the employee information and the database in the SACCT server maintains the accounts payable information. The employees submit the expense reports to the accounts payable department. A user of the accounts payable database wants to extract the employee information from the database in the SEMP server for crossverification.

Which schema object enables the user to access the information from the remote database?

A. Cluster

B. Database link

C. Mapping table

D. Materialized view

Answer: B

Q15. You have executed this command to change the size of the database buffer cache:

SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE=2516582;

System altered.

To verify the change in size, you executed this command:

Why is the value set to 4194304 and not to 2516582?

A. Because 4194304 is the granule size

B. Because 4194304 is the standard block size

C. Because 4194304 is the largest nonstandard block size defined in the database

D. Because 4194304 is the total size of data already available in the database buffer cache

Answer: A

Q16. You are working on an instance started using the SPFILE. You want to move the Flash Recovery Area of your database to a new location. You want the Flashback log files to be stored in the new location. Given below are the steps to accomplish the task in random order:

1) Shut down the instance.

2) Change the value of the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST initialization parameter to a new value.

3) Execute the ALTER DATABASE FLASHBACK OFF command.

4) Start up the instance and mount the database.

5) Execute the ALTER DATABASE FLASHBACK ON command.

6) Open the database.

Select the correct order in which these tasks need to be performed.

A. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5, 6

B. 1, 4, 3, 2, 6, 5

C. 1, 4, 2, 6, 3, 5

D. 3, 2, 1, 4, 5, 6

Answer: A

Q17. You set the following parameters in the parameter file and restarted the database:

MEMORY_MAX_TARGET=0

MEMORY_TARGET=500M

PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET=90M

SGA_TARGET=270M

Which two statements are true about these parameters after the database instance is restarted?

(Choose two.)

A. The MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameter is automatically set to 500 MB.

B. The PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and SGA_TARGET parameters are automatically set to zero.

C. The value of the MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameter remains zero until it is changed manually.

D. The lower bounds of PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and SGA_TARGET parameters are set to 90 MB and 270 MB, respectively.

Answer: AD

Q18. The database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. Examine the initialization parameters and their values set to enable archiving on your database server:

Which statement is true regarding the archived redo log files?

A. It will be created on the local file system.

B. It will be created only in the Flash Recovery Area.

C. It will be created in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter and the default location $ORACLE_HOME/dbs.

D. It will be created in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter and location specified by the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST parameter.

Answer: A

Q19. View the Exhibits and examine lock waits. Users HR and SH complain that their transactions on one of the application tables, EMP, are waiting for response.

Which action would you take to release the lock and enable users HR and SH to continue with their transactions?

07 (exhibit):

A. Kill the session of the user SCOTT with session ID118.

B. Issue manual checkpoint using the ALTER SYSTEM command.

C. Modify the profile used by user SCOTT to reduce the CONNECT_TIME limit.

D. Flush the Shared Pool to remove the SQL statement causing "wait" in memory.

Answer: A

Q20. The database instance is currently using SPFILE. View the Exhibit and examine the error that you received while running the DB Structure Integrity check. Given below are the steps to recover from the error in random order:

1. Shut down the instance, if not already done.

2. Copy one of the remaining control files to a new location.

3. Change the value of the CONTROL_FILES initialization parameter to correspond to the new location of the control files.

4. Start up the database instance to the NOMOUNT stage.

5. Recover the database to the point of failure of the control file.

6. Open the database.

Identify the correct sequence of steps?

Exhibit:

A. 1, 2, 4, 3, 5, 6

B. 2, 4, 3, 5, 6; 1 not required

C. 4, 5, 6, 2, 3; 1 not required

D. 5, 2, 3, 4; 1 and 6 not required

Answer: A