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NEW QUESTION 1
A small company’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) has asked its Chief Security Officer (CSO) to improve the company’s security posture quickly with regard to targeted attacks. Which of the following
should the CSO conduct FIRST?

  • A. Survey threat feeds from services inside the same industry.
  • B. Purchase multiple threat feeds to ensure diversity and implement blocks for malicious traffic.
  • C. Conduct an internal audit against industry best practices to perform a qualitative analysis.
  • D. Deploy a UTM solution that receives frequent updates from a trusted industry vendo

Answer: A

Explanation:
Security posture refers to the overall security plan from planning through to implementation and comprises technical and non-technical policies, procedures and controls to protect from both internal and external threats. From a security standpoint, one of the first questions that must be answered in improving the overall security posture of an organization is to identify where data
resides. All the advances that were made by technology make this very difficult. The best way then to improve your company’s security posture is to first survey threat feeds from services inside the same industry.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Purchasing multiple threat feeds will provide better security posture, but the first step is still to survey threats from services within the same industry.
C: Conducting an internal audit is not the first step in improving security posture of your company. D: Deploying a UTM solution to get frequent updates is not the first step to take when tasked with the job of improving security posture.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 99

NEW QUESTION 2
A consultant is hired to perform a passive vulnerability assessment of a company to determine what information might be collected about the company and its employees. The assessment will be considered successful if the consultant can discover the name of one of the IT administrators. Which of the following is MOST likely to produce the needed information?

  • A. Whois
  • B. DNS enumeration
  • C. Vulnerability scanner
  • D. Fingerprinting

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
A security administrator wants to implement two-factor authentication for network switches and routers. The solution should integrate with the company’s RADIUS server, which is used for authentication to the network infrastructure devices. The security administrator implements the following:
An HOTP service is installed on the RADIUS server.
The RADIUS server is configured to require the HOTP service for authentication.
The configuration is successfully tested using a software supplicant and enforced across all network devices. Network administrators report they are unable to log onto the network devices because they are not being prompted for the second factor.
Which of the following should be implemented to BEST resolve the issue?

  • A. Replace the password requirement with the second facto
  • B. Network administrators will enter their username and then enter the token in place of their password in the password field.
  • C. Configure the RADIUS server to accept the second factor appended to the passwor
  • D. Network administrators will enter a password followed by their token in the password field.
  • E. Reconfigure network devices to prompt for username, password, and a toke
  • F. Network administrators will enter their username and password, and then they will enter the token.
  • G. Install a TOTP service on the RADIUS server in addition to the HOTP servic
  • H. Use the HOTP on older devices that do not support two-factor authenticatio
  • I. Network administrators will use a web portalto log onto these device

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4
A security administrator has noticed that an increased number of employees’ workstations are becoming infected with malware. The company deploys an enterprise antivirus system as well as a web content filter, which blocks access to malicious web sites where malware files can be downloaded. Additionally, the company implements technical measures to disable external storage. Which of the following is a technical control that the security administrator should implement next to reduce malware infection?

  • A. Implement an Acceptable Use Policy which addresses malware downloads.
  • B. Deploy a network access control system with a persistent agent.
  • C. Enforce mandatory security awareness training for all employees and contractors.
  • D. Block cloud-based storage software on the company networ

Answer: D

Explanation:
The question states that the company implements technical measures to disable external storage. This is storage such as USB flash drives and will help to ensure that the users to do not bring unauthorized data that could potentially contain malware into the network.
We should extend this by blocking cloud-based storage software on the company network. This would block access to cloud-based storage services such as Dropbox or OneDrive.
Incorrect Answers:
A: An Acceptable Use Policy is always a good ide
A. However, it just tells the users how they ‘should’
use the company systems. It is not a technical control to prevent malware.
B: A network access control system is used to control access to the network. It does not prevent malware on client computers.
C: Mandatory security awareness training for all employees and contractors is always a good idea. However, it just educates the users about potential security risks. It is not a technical control to prevent malware.

NEW QUESTION 5
After a security incident, an administrator would like to implement policies that would help reduce fraud and the potential for collusion between employees. Which of the following would help meet these goals by having co-workers occasionally audit another worker's position?

  • A. Least privilege
  • B. Job rotation
  • C. Mandatory vacation
  • D. Separation of duties

Answer: B

Explanation:
Job rotation can reduce fraud or misuse by preventing an individual from having too much control over an area.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The principle of least privilege prevents employees from accessing levels not required to perform their everyday function.
C: Mandatory vacation is used to discover misuse and allow the organization time to audit a suspected employee while they are away from work.
D: Separation of duties requires more than one person to complete a task. References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, p. 245

NEW QUESTION 6
Joe, a hacker, has discovered he can specifically craft a webpage that when viewed in a browser crashes the browser and then allows him to gain remote code execution in the context of the victim’s privilege level. The browser crashes due to an exception error when a heap memory that is unused is accessed. Which of the following BEST describes the application issue?

  • A. Integer overflow
  • B. Click-jacking
  • C. Race condition
  • D. SQL injection
  • E. Use after free
  • F. Input validation

Answer: E

Explanation:
Use-After-Free vulnerabilities are a type of memory corruption flaw that can be leveraged by hackers to execute arbitrary code.
Use After Free specifically refers to the attempt to access memory after it has been freed, which can cause a program to crash or, in the case of a Use-After-Free flaw, can potentially result in the execution of arbitrary code or even enable full remote code execution capabilities.
According to the Use After Free definition on the Common Weakness Enumeration (CWE) website, a Use After Free scenario can occur when "the memory in question is allocated to another pointer validly at some point after it has been freed. The original pointer to the freed memory is used again and points to somewhere within the new allocation. As the data is changed, it corrupts the validly used memory; this induces undefined behavior in the process."
Incorrect Answers:
A: Integer overflow is the result of an attempt by a CPU to arithmetically generate a number larger than what can fit in the devoted memory storage space. Arithmetic operations always have the potential of returning unexpected values, which may cause an error that forces the whole program to shut down. This is not what is described in this question.
B: Clickjacking is a malicious technique of tricking a Web user into clicking on something different from what the user perceives they are clicking on, thus potentially revealing confidential information
or taking control of their computer while clicking on seemingly innocuous web pages. This is not what is described in this question.
C: A race condition is an undesirable situation that occurs when a device or system attempts to perform two or more operations at the same time, but because of the nature of the device or system, the operations must be done in the proper sequence to be done correctly. This is not what is described in this question.
D: SQL injection is a type of security explogt in which the attacker adds Structured Query Language (SQL) code to a Web form input box to gain access to resources or make changes to dat
A. This is not
what is described in this question.
F: Input validation is used to ensure that the correct data is entered into a field. For example, input validation would prevent letters typed into a field that expects number from being accepted. This is not what is described in this question.
References:
http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/U/use-after-free.HYPERLINK "http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/U/use-after-free.html"html
htHYPERLINK "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clickjacking"tps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clickjacking http://searchstorage.tHYPERLINK "http://searchstorage.techtarget.com/definition/racecondition" echtarget.com/definition/race-condiHYPERLINK "http://searchstorage.techtarget.com/definition/race-condition"tion

NEW QUESTION 7
The marketing department has developed a new marketing campaign involving significant social media outreach. The campaign includes allowing employees and customers to submit blog posts and pictures of their day-to-day experiences at the company. The information security manager has been asked to provide an informative letter to all participants regarding the security risks and how to avoid privacy and operational security issues. Which of the following is the MOST important information to reference in the letter?

  • A. After-action reports from prior incidents.
  • B. Social engineering techniques
  • C. Company policies and employee NDAs
  • D. Data classification processes

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 8
A developer has implemented a piece of client-side JavaScript code to sanitize a user’s provided input to a web page login screen. The code ensures that only the upper case and lower case letters are entered in the username field, and that only a 6-digit PIN is entered in the password field. A security administrator is concerned with the following web server log:
10.235.62.11 – - [02/Mar/2014:06:13:04] “GET
/site/script.php?user=admin&pass=pass%20or%201=1 HTTP/1.1” 200 5724
Given this log, which of the following is the security administrator concerned with and which fix should be implemented by the developer?

  • A. The security administrator is concerned with nonprintable characters being used to gain administrative access, and the developer should strip all nonprintable characters.
  • B. The security administrator is concerned with XSS, and the developer should normalize Unicode characters on the browser side.
  • C. The security administrator is concerned with SQL injection, and the developer should implement server side input validation.
  • D. The security administrator is concerned that someone may log on as the administrator, and the developer should ensure strong passwords are enforced.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The code in the question is an example of a SQL Injection attack. The code ‘1=1’ will always provide a value of true. This can be included in statement designed to return all rows in a SQL table.
In this question, the administrator has implemented client-side input validation. Client-side validation can be bypassed. It is much more difficult to bypass server-side input validation.
SQL injection is a code injection technique, used to attack data-driven applications, in which malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution (e.g. to dump the database contents to the attacker). SQL injection must explogt a security vulnerability in an application's software, for example, when user input is either incorrectly filtered for string literal escape characters embedded in SQL statements or user input is not strongly typed and unexpectedly executed. SQL injection is mostly known as an attack vector for websites but can be used to attack any type of SQL database.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The code in this question does not contain non-printable characters.
B: The code in this question is not an example of cross site scripting (XSS).
D: The code in this question is an example of a SQL injection attack. It is not simply someone attempting to log on as administrator.
References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SQL_injection

NEW QUESTION 9
The Chief Information Officer (CIO) has been asked to develop a security dashboard with the relevant metrics. The board of directors will use the dashboard to monitor and track the overall security posture of the organization. The CIO produces a basic report containing both KPI and KRI data in two separate sections for the board to review.
Which of the following BEST meets the needs of the board?

  • A. KRI:- Compliance with regulations- Backlog of unresolved security investigations- Severity ofthreats and vulnerabilities reported by sensors- Time to patch critical issues on a monthly basisKPI:- Time to resolve open security items- % of suppliers with approved security control frameworks- EDR coverage across the fileet- Threat landscape rating
  • B. KRI:- EDR coverage across the fileet- Backlog of unresolved security investigations- Time to patch critical issues on a monthly basis- Threat landscape ratingKPI:- Time to resolve open security items- Compliance with regulations- % of suppliers with approved security control frameworks- Severity of threats and vulnerabilities reported by sensors
  • C. KRI:- EDR coverage across the fileet- % of suppliers with approved security control framework- Backlog of unresolved security investigations- Threat landscape ratingKPI:- Time to resolve open security items- Compliance with regulations- Time to patch critical issues on a monthly basis- Severity of threats and vulnerabilities reported by sensors
  • D. KPI:- Compliance with regulations- % of suppliers with approved security control frameworks- Severity of threats and vulnerabilities reported by sensors- Threat landscape ratingKRI:- Time to resolve open security items- Backlog of unresolved security investigations- EDR coverage across the fileet- Time to patch critical issues on a monthly basis

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
An engineer needs to provide access to company resources for several offshore contractors. The contractors require:
Access to a number of applications, including internal websites Access to database data and the ability to manipulate it
The ability to log into Linux and Windows servers remotely
Which of the following remote access technologies are the BEST choices to provide all of this access securely? (Choose two.)

  • A. VTC
  • B. VRRP
  • C. VLAN
  • D. VDI
  • E. VPN
  • F. Telnet

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 11
A security administrator is shown the following log excerpt from a Unix system:
2013 Oct 10 07:14:57 web14 sshd[1632]: Failed password for root from 198.51.100.23 port 37914 ssh2
2013 Oct 10 07:14:57 web14 sshd[1635]: Failed password for root from 198.51.100.23 port 37915 ssh2
2013 Oct 10 07:14:58 web14 sshd[1638]: Failed password for root from 198.51.100.23 port 37916 ssh2
2013 Oct 10 07:15:59 web14 sshd[1640]: Failed password for root from 198.51.100.23 port 37918 ssh2
2013 Oct 10 07:16:00 web14 sshd[1641]: Failed password for root from 198.51.100.23 port 37920 ssh2
2013 Oct 10 07:16:00 web14 sshd[1642]: Successful login for root from 198.51.100.23 port 37924 ssh2
Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation of what is occurring and the BEST immediate response? (Select TWO).

  • A. An authorized administrator has logged into the root account remotely.
  • B. The administrator should disable remote root logins.
  • C. Isolate the system immediately and begin forensic analysis on the host.
  • D. A remote attacker has compromised the root account using a buffer overflow in sshd.
  • E. A remote attacker has guessed the root password using a dictionary attack.
  • F. Use iptables to immediately DROP connections from the IP 198.51.100.23.
  • G. A remote attacker has compromised the private key of the root account.
  • H. Change the root password immediately to a password not found in a dictionar

Answer: CE

Explanation:
The log shows six attempts to log in to a system. The first five attempts failed due to ‘failed password’. The sixth attempt was a successful login. Therefore, the MOST likely explanation of what is occurring is that a remote attacker has guessed the root password using a dictionary attack.
The BEST immediate response is to isolate the system immediately and begin forensic analysis on the host. You should isolate the system to prevent any further access to it and prevent it from doing any damage to other systems on the network. You should perform a forensic analysis on the system to determine what the attacker did on the system after gaining access.
Incorrect Answers:
A: It is unlikely that an authorized administrator has logged into the root account remotely. It is unlikely that an authorized administrator would enter an incorrect password five times.
B: Disabling remote root logins is not the best course of action. The attacker has already gained access to the system so potentially the damage is already done.
D: The log does not suggest a buffer overflow attack; the failed passwords suggest a dictionary attack. F: Using iptables to immediately DROP connections from the IP 198.51.100.23 is not the best course of action. The attacker has already gained access to the system so potentially the damage is already done.
G: The log does not suggest a remote attacker has compromised the private key of the root account; the failed passwords suggest a dictionary attack.
H: Changing the root password is a good idea but it is not the best course of action. The attacker has already gained access to the system so potentially the damage is already done.

NEW QUESTION 12
A recent assessment identified that several users’ mobile devices are running outdated versions of endpoint security software that do not meet the company’s security policy. Which of the following should be performed to ensure the users can access the network and meet the company’s security requirements?

  • A. Vulnerability assessment
  • B. Risk assessment
  • C. Patch management
  • D. Device quarantine
  • E. Incident management

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 13
A developer is determining the best way to improve security within the code being developed. The developer is focusing on input fields where customers enter their credit card details. Which of the following techniques, if implemented in the code, would be the MOST effective in protecting the fields from malformed input?

  • A. Client side input validation
  • B. Stored procedure
  • C. Encrypting credit card details
  • D. Regular expression matching

Answer: D

Explanation:
Regular expression matching is a technique for reading and validating input, particularly in web software. This question is asking about securing input fields where customers enter their credit card details. In this case, the expected input into the credit card number field would be a sequence of numbers of a certain length. We can use regular expression matching to verify that the input is indeed a sequence of numbers. Anything that is not a sequence of numbers could be malicious code. Incorrect Answers:
A: Client side input validation could be used to validate the input into input fields. Client side input validation is where the validation is performed by the web browser. However this question is asking for the BEST answer. A user with malicious intent could bypass the client side input validation whereas it would be much more difficult to bypass regular expression matching implemented in the application code.
B: A stored procedure is SQL code saved as a script. A SQL user can run the stored procedure rather than typing all the SQL code contained in the stored procedure. A stored procedure is not used for
validating input.
C: Any stored credit card details should be encrypted for security purposes. Also a secure method of transmission such as SSL or TLS should be used to encrypt the data when transmitting the credit card number over a network such as the Internet. However, encrypting credit card details is not a way of securing the input fields in an application.

NEW QUESTION 14
A web services company is planning a one-time high-profile event to be hosted on the corporate website. An outage, due to an attack, would be publicly embarrassing, so Joe, the Chief Executive Officer (CEO), has requested that his security engineers put temporary preventive controls in place. Which of the following would MOST appropriately address Joe's concerns?

  • A. Ensure web services hosting the event use TCP cookies and deny_hosts.
  • B. Configure an intrusion prevention system that blocks IPs after detecting too many incomplete sessions.
  • C. Contract and configure scrubbing services with third-party DDoS mitigation providers.
  • D. Purchase additional bandwidth from the company’s Internet service provide

Answer: C

Explanation:
Scrubbing is an excellent way of dealing with this type of situation where the company wants to stay connected no matter what during the one-time high profile event. It involves deploying a multi- layered security approach backed by extensive threat research to defend against a variety of attacks with a guarantee of always-on.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Making use of TCP cookies will not be helpful in this event since cookins are used to maintain selections on previous pages and attackers can assess cookies in transit or in storage to carry out their attacks.
B: Using intrusion prevention systems blocking IPs is contra productive for a one-time high profile event if you want to attract and reach many clients and the same time.
D: Purchasing additional bandwidth from the ISP not going to prevent attackers from hi-jacking your one-time event.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 159, 165, 168
http://www.level3.com/en/products/ddos-mitigation/

NEW QUESTION 15
An engineer is assisting with the design of a new virtualized environment that will house critical company services and reduce the datacenter’s physical footprint. The company has expressed concern about the integrity of operating systems and wants to ensure a vulnerability explogted in one datacenter segment would not lead to the compromise of all others. Which of the following design objectives should the engineer complete to BEST mitigate the company’s concerns? (Choose two.)

  • A. Deploy virtual desktop infrastructure with an OOB management network
  • B. Employ the use of vTPM with boot attestation
  • C. Leverage separate physical hardware for sensitive services and data
  • D. Use a community CSP with independently managed security services
  • E. Deploy to a private cloud with hosted hypervisors on each physical machine

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 16
A security architect is designing a system to satisfy user demand for reduced transaction time, increased security and message integrity, and improved cryptographic security. The resultant system will be used in an environment with a broad user base where many asynchronous transactions occur every minute and must be publicly verifiable.
Which of the following solutions BEST meets all of the architect’s objectives?

  • A. An internal key infrastructure that allows users to digitally sign transaction logs
  • B. An agreement with an entropy-as-a-service provider to increase the amount of randomness in generated keys.
  • C. A publicly verified hashing algorithm that allows revalidation of message integrity at a future date.
  • D. An open distributed transaction ledger that requires proof of work to append entrie

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 17
The government is concerned with remote military missions being negatively being impacted by the use of technology that may fail to protect operational security. To remediate this concern, a number of solutions have been implemented, including the following:
End-to-end encryption of all inbound and outbound communication, including personal email and chat sessions that allow soldiers to securely communicate with families.
Layer 7 inspection and TCP/UDP port restriction, including firewall rules to only allow TCP port 80 and 443 and approved applications
A host-based whitelist of approved websites and applications that only allow mission-related tools and sites
The use of satellite communication to include multiple proxy servers to scramble the source IP address
Which of the following is of MOST concern in this scenario?

  • A. Malicious actors intercepting inbound and outbound communication to determine the scope of the mission
  • B. Family members posting geotagged images on social media that were received via email from soldiers
  • C. The effect of communication latency that may negatively impact real-time communication with mission control
  • D. The use of centrally managed military network and computers by soldiers when communicating with external parties

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 18
A bank is in the process of developing a new mobile application. The mobile client renders content and communicates back to the company servers via REST/JSON calls. The bank wants to ensure that the communication is stateless between the mobile application and the web services gateway.
Which of the following controls MUST be implemented to enable stateless communication?

  • A. Generate a one-time key as part of the device registration process.
  • B. Require SSL between the mobile application and the web services gateway.
  • C. The jsession cookie should be stored securely after authentication.
  • D. Authentication assertion should be stored securely on the clien

Answer: D

Explanation:
JSON Web Tokens (JWTs) are a great mechanism for persisting authentication information in a verifiable and stateless way, but that token still needs to be stored somewhere.
Login forms are one of the most common attack vectors. We want the user to give us a username and password, so we know who they are and what they have access to. We want to remember who the user is, allowing them to use the UI without having to present those credentials a second time. And we want to do all that securely. How can JWTs help?
The traditional solution is to put a session cookie in the user’s browser. This cookie contains an identifier that references a “session” in your server, a place in your database where the server remembers who this user is.
However there are some drawbacks to session identifiers:
They’re stateful. Your server has to remember that ID, and look it up for every request. This can become a burden with large systems.
They’re opaque. They have no meaning to your client or your server. Your client doesn’t know what it’s allowed to access, and your server has to go to a database to figure out who this session is for and if they are allowed to perform the requested operation.
JWTs address all of these concerns by being a self-contained, signed, and stateless authentication assertion that can be shared amongst services with a common data format.
JWTs are self-contained strings signed with a secret key. They contain a set of claims that assert an identity and a scope of access. They can be stored in cookies, but all those rules still apply. In fact, JWTs can replace your opaque session identifier, so it’s a complete win.
How To Store JWTs In The Browser
Short Answer:: use cookies, with the HttpOnly; Secure flags. This will allow the browser to send along
the token for authentication purposes, but won’t expose it to the JavaScript environment. Incorrect Answers:
A: A one-time key does not enable stateless communication.
B: SSL between the mobile application and the web services gateway will provide a secure encrypted connection between the two. However, SSL does not enable stateless communication.
C: A cookie is stateful, not stateless as required in the question. References:
https://stormpath.com/blog/build-secure-user-interfaces-using-jwtHYPERLINK "https://stormpath.com/blog/build-secure-user-interfaces-using-jwts/"s/

NEW QUESTION 19
A recent penetration test identified that a web server has a major vulnerability. The web server hosts a critical shipping application for the company and requires 99.99% availability. Attempts to fix the vulnerability would likely break the application. The shipping application is due to be replaced in the next three months. Which of the following would BEST secure the web server until the replacement web server is ready?

  • A. Patch management
  • B. Antivirus
  • C. Application firewall
  • D. Spam filters
  • E. HIDS

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 20
An analyst has noticed unusual activities in the SIEM to a .cn domain name. Which of the following should the analyst use to identify the content of the traffic?

  • A. Log review
  • B. Service discovery
  • C. Packet capture
  • D. DNS harvesting

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 21
Which of the following activities is commonly deemed “OUT OF SCOPE” when undertaking a penetration test?

  • A. Test password complexity of all login fields and input validation of form fields
  • B. Reverse engineering any thick client software that has been provided for the test
  • C. Undertaking network-based denial of service attacks in production environment
  • D. Attempting to perform blind SQL injection and refilected cross-site scripting attacks
  • E. Running a vulnerability scanning tool to assess network and host weaknesses

Answer: C

Explanation:
Penetration testing is done to look at a network in an adversarial fashion with the aim of looking at what an attacker will use. Penetration testing is done without malice and undertaking a networkbased denial of service attack in the production environment is as such ‘OUT OF SCOPE’.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Testing the password complexity of login fields and the input validation of form fields can form part of penetration testing. This is part of the gaining access phase of penetration testing.
B: Making use of reverse engineering a thick client software package would fall within the scope of penetration testing.
D: Blind SQL injection and refilected cross-site scripting attacks can be used in penetration testing. It would form part of the escalation of privilege step in penetration testing.
E: A vulnerability scanning tool to check network and host weakness would be admissible in penetration testing because it is part of the scanning process of penetration testing. References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 91, 166-167

NEW QUESTION 22
An IT manager is concerned about the cost of implementing a web filtering solution in an effort to mitigate the risks associated with malware and resulting data leakage. Given that the ARO is twice per year, the ALE resulting from a data leak is $25,000 and the ALE after implementing the web filter is $15,000. The web filtering solution will cost the organization $10,000 per year. Which of the following values is the single loss expectancy of a data leakage event after implementing the web filtering solution?

  • A. $0
  • B. $7,500
  • C. $10,000
  • D. $12,500
  • E. $15,000

Answer: B

Explanation:
The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the product of the annual rate of occurrence (ARO) and the single loss expectancy (SLE). It is mathematically expressed as: ALE = ARO x SLE
Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is mathematically expressed as: Asset value (AV) x Exposure Factor (EF) SLE = AV x EF - Thus the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) = ALE/ARO = $15,000 / 2 = $ 7,500 References:
http://www.financeformulas.net/Return_on_Investment.html https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Risk_assessment

NEW QUESTION 23
A vulnerability scanner report shows that a client-server host monitoring solution operating in the credit card corporate environment is managing SSL sessions with a weak algorithm which does not meet corporate policy. Which of the following are true statements? (Select TWO).

  • A. The X509 V3 certificate was issued by a non trusted public CA.
  • B. The client-server handshake could not negotiate strong ciphers.
  • C. The client-server handshake is configured with a wrong priority.
  • D. The client-server handshake is based on TLS authentication.
  • E. The X509 V3 certificate is expired.
  • F. The client-server implements client-server mutual authentication with different certificate

Answer: BC

Explanation:
The client-server handshake could not negotiate strong ciphers. This means that the system is not configured to support the strong ciphers provided by later versions of the SSL protocol. For example, if the system is configured to support only SSL version 1.1, then only a weak cipher will be supported. The client-server handshake is configured with a wrong priority. The client sends a list of SSL versions it supports and priority should be given to the highest version it supports. For example, if the client supports SSL versions 1.1, 2 and 3, then the server should use version 3. If the priority is not configured correctly (if it uses the lowest version) then version 1.1 with its weak algorithm will be used.
Incorrect Answers:
A: If the X509 V3 certificate was issued by a non-trusted public CA, then the client would receive an error saying the certificate is not trusted. However, an X509 V3 certificate would not cause a weak algorithm.
D: TLS provides the strongest algorithm; even stronger than SSL version 3.
E: If the X509 V3 certificate had expired, then the client would receive an error saying the certificate is not trusted due to being expired. However, an X509 V3 certificate would not cause a weak algorithm.
F: SSL does not mutual authentication with different certificates. References:
http://www.slashroot.in/uHYPERLINK "http://www.slashroot.in/understanding-ssl-handshakeprotocol" nderstanding-ssl-hHYPERLINK "http://www.slashroot.in/understanding-ssl-handshakeprotocol" andshake-protocol

NEW QUESTION 24
The latest independent research shows that cyber attacks involving SCADA systems grew an average of 15% per year in each of the last four years, but that this year’s growth has slowed to around 7%. Over the same time period, the number of attacks against applications has decreased or stayed flat each year. At the start of the measure period, the incidence of PC boot loader or BIOS based attacks was negligible. Starting two years ago, the growth in the number of PC boot loader attacks has grown exponentially. Analysis of these trends would seem to suggest which of the following strategies should be employed?

  • A. Spending on SCADA protections should stay steady; application control spending should increase substantially and spending on PC boot loader controls should increase substantially.
  • B. Spending on SCADA security controls should stay steady; application control spending should decrease slightly and spending on PC boot loader protections should increase substantially.
  • C. Spending all controls should increase by 15% to start; spending on application controls should be suspended, and PC boot loader protection research should increase by 100%.
  • D. Spending on SCADA security controls should increase by 15%; application control spending should increase slightly, and spending on PC boot loader protections should remain steady.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Spending on the security controls should stay steady because the attacks are still ongoing albeit reduced in occurrence Due to the incidence of BIOS-based attacks growing exponentially as the application attacks being decreased or staying flat spending should increase in this field. Incorrect Answers:
A: The SCADA security control spending and not the SCADA protection spending should stay steady. There is no need to in spending on application control.
C: There is no n increase spending on all security controls.
D: This is partly correct, but the spending on application control does not have to increase and the BIOS protections should increase since these attacks are now more prevalent.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, p. 343
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SCADA

NEW QUESTION 25
A team is at the beginning stages of designing a new enterprise-wide application. The new application will have a large database and require a capital investment in hardware. The Chief Information Officer (?IO) has directed the team to save money and reduce the reliance on the datacenter, and the vendor must specialize in hosting large databases in the cloud. Which of the following cloud-hosting options would BEST meet these needs?

  • A. Multi-tenancy SaaS
  • B. Hybrid IaaS
  • C. Single-tenancy PaaS
  • D. Community IaaS

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 26
To meet a SLA, which of the following document should be drafted, defining the company’s internal interdependent unit responsibilities and delivery timelines.

  • A. BPA
  • B. OLA
  • C. MSA
  • D. MOU

Answer: B

Explanation:
OLA is an agreement between the internal support groups of an institution that supports SLA. According to the Operational Level Agreement, each internal support group has certain responsibilities to the other group. The OLA clearly depicts the performance and relationship of the internal service groups. The main objective of OLA is to ensure that all the support groups provide the intended ServiceLevelAgreement.

NEW QUESTION 27
An organization is concerned with potential data loss in the event of a disaster, and created a backup datacenter as a mitigation strategy. The current storage method is a single NAS used by all servers in both datacenters. Which of the following options increases data availability in the event of a datacenter failure?

  • A. Replicate NAS changes to the tape backups at the other datacenter.
  • B. Ensure each server has two HBAs connected through two routes to the NAS.
  • C. Establish deduplication across diverse storage paths.
  • D. Establish a SAN that replicates between datacenters.

Answer: D

Explanation:
A SAN is a Storage Area Network. It is an alternative to NAS storage. SAN replication is a technology that replicates the data on one SAN to another SAN; in this case, it would replicate the data to a SAN in the backup datacenter. In the event of a disaster, the SAN in the backup datacenter would contain all the data on the original SAN.
Array-based replication is an approach to data backup in which compatible storage arrays use built-in software to automatically copy data from one storage array to another. Array-based replication software runs on one or more storage controllers resident in disk storage systems, synchronously or asynchronously replicating data between similar storage array models at the logical unit number (LUN) or volume block level. The term can refer to the creation of local copies of data within the same array as the source data, as well as the creation of remote copies in an array situated off site. Incorrect Answers:
A: Replicating NAS changes to the tape backups at the other datacenter would result in a copy of the NAS data in the backup datacenter. However, the data will be stored on tape. In the event of a disaster, you would need another NAS to restore the data to.
B: Ensuring that each server has two routes to the NAS is not a viable solution. The NAS is still a single point of failure. In the event of a disaster, you could lose the NAS and all the data on it.
C: Deduplication is the process of eliminating multiple copies of the same data to save storage space. The NAS is still a single point of failure. In the event of a disaster, you could lose the NAS and all the data on it.
References:
http://searHYPERLINK "http://searchdisasterrecovery.techtarget.com/definition/Array-basedreplication" chdisasterrecovery.tHYPERLINK
"http://searchdisasterrecovery.techtarget.com/definition/Array-basedreplication" echtarget.com/definition/HYPERLINK
"http://searchdisasterrecovery.techtarget.com/definition/Array-based-replication"Array-basedrepliHYPERLINK "http://searchdisasterrecovery.techtarget.com/definition/Array-basedreplication"
cation

NEW QUESTION 28
A security researches is gathering information about a recent spoke in the number of targeted attacks against multinational banks. The spike is on top of already sustained attacks against the banks. Some of the previous attacks have resulted in the loss of sensitive data, but as of yet the attackers have not successfully stolen any funds.
Based on the information available to the researcher, which of the following is the MOST likely threat profile?

  • A. Nation-state-sponsored attackers conducting espionage for strategic gain.
  • B. Insiders seeking to gain access to funds for illicit purposes.
  • C. Opportunists seeking notoriety and fame for personal gain.
  • D. Hackvisits seeking to make a political statement because of socio-economic factor

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 29
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