ISEB-SWT2 | Top Tips Of Replace ISEB-SWT2 Question

NEW QUESTION 1

Which TWO of the following test tools would be classified as test execution tools? [K2]
* a. Test data preparation tools
* b. Test harness
* c. Review tools
* d. Test comparators
* e. Configuration management tools

• A. a and b
• B. c and d
• C. c and e
• D. b and d

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2

Which of the following options explain why it is often beneficial to have an independent test function in an organisation?

• A. To improve defect finding during reviews and testing
• B. To ensure that developers adhere to coding standards
• C. To limit communication between developers and testers
• D. To provide better metrics for the stakeholders

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3

In a review meeting a moderator is a person who:

• A. Takes minutes of the meeting
• B. Mediates between people
• C. Takes telephone calls
• D. Writes the documents to be reviewed

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4

From the following list, which of the following apply to experience-based techniques? [K2]
* a. Test cases are derived from a model of the problem to be solved or the software
* b. Test cases are derived from the knowledge of the testers
* c. The knowledge of testers, developers and users is used to drive testing
* d. The internal structure of the code is used to derive test cases

• A. a and b.
• B. c and d.
• C. a and d.
• D. b and c.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5

A test case starts at S1 and triggers 4 events in sequence: E1, E4, E5, E7. What will be the finishing state and the output(s) from the test case? [K3]
Refer to the exhibit

• A. S2 and O4
• B. S4 and O2
• C. S4 and O4
• D. S2 and O2

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 6

Security falls under..?

• A. compliance testing
• B. disaster testing
• C. verifying compliance to rules
• D. functional testing
• E. ease of operations

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7

The five parts of the fundamental test process have a broad chronological order. Which of the options gives three different parts in the correct order?

• A. Implementation and execution, planning and control, analysis and design.
• B. Analysis and design, evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities.
• C. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, implementation and execution, analysis and design.
• D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities, analysis and design.

Answer: B

Explanation:
All other answers have at least one stage of the fundamental test process in the wrong sequence.

NEW QUESTION 8

Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit

• A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
• B. Percentage of requirements covered
• C. Lines of code written per developer per day
• D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 9

When assembling a test team to work on an enhancement to an existing system, which of the following has the highest level of test independence?

• A. A business analyst who wrote the original requirements for the system.
• B. A permanent programmer who reviewed some of the new code, but has not written any of it.
• C. A permanent tester who found most defects in the original system.
• D. A contract tester who has never worked for the organization before.

Answer: D

Explanation:
In this scenario, the contract tester who has never worked for the organization before has the highest level of test independence. The three others are less independent as they are likely to make assumptions based on their previous knowledge of the requirements, code and general functionality of the original system.
Note that independence does not necessarily equate to most useful. In practice most test or project managers would recruit a permanent tester who has worked on the original system in preference to a contract tester with no knowledge of the system. However, when assembling a team it would be useful to have staff with varying levels of test independence and system knowledge.

NEW QUESTION 10

You are considering involving users during test execution. In general, what is the main reason for involving users during test execution? 1 credit

• A. They are a cheap resource
• B. They have good testing skills
• C. This can serve as a way to build their confidence in the system
• D. They have the ability to also focus on invalid test cases

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 11

Which of the following is true about the V-model?

• A. It has the same steps as the waterfall model for software development.
• B. It is referred to as a cyclical model for software development.
• C. It enables the production of a working version of the system as early as possible.
• D. It enables test planning to start as early as possible.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 12

As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support. Which type of tool could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed? 1 credit

• A. Review tool
• B. Test execution tool
• C. Static analysis tool
• D. Test design tool

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 13

Maintenance testing is:

• A. updating tests when the software has changed
• B. testing a released system that has been changed
• C. testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
• D. testing to maintain business advantage

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 14

Which of the following is usually the test basis for integration testing?

• A. Program specification
• B. Functional specification
• C. Technical specification
• D. Requirement specification

Answer: C

Explanation:
Option (A) is used for unit testing. Option (B) is used for system testing and Option (D) is used for acceptance testing.

NEW QUESTION 15

Which of the following would be the most significant input to estimating the time to carry out the specified testing tasks? 3 credits

• A. The skills and experience of developers to correct the failures.
• B. The standards used for the requirements specification.
• C. The metrics recorded from testing the capture-replay tool.
• D. The number of testers in the company and their grade.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 16

Which of the following is a role of a formal review? [K1]

• A. Adjudicator
• B. Moderator
• C. Governor
• D. Corrector

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 17

Regarding the process described above, what is the most important recommendation you would make using IEEE 1044 as a guide? 2 credits

• A. No priority or severity assigned
• B. Incident numbering is manual rather than automated
• C. No mentioning of reproduceability
• D. No classification on type of incident

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 18

Which option BEST describes how the level of risk is determined?

• A. The likelihood of an adverse event happening multiplied by the cost of preventing it
• B. The consequences of a potential problem multiplied by the cost of possible legal action
• C. The impact of an adverse event multiplied by the likelihood of that event occurring
• D. The likelihood and the probability of a hazard occurring

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 19

Equivalence Partitioning is best defined as:

• A. An analysis technique that divides inputs into groups that are expected to exhibit similar behaviors.
• B. Applying to time-related data classes only.
• C. A form of white-box testing.
• D. A method to reduce test coverage.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 20

Which of the following is a project risk mitigation step you might take as test manager? 1 credit

• A. Testing for performance problems
• B. Hiring a contractor after a test analyst leaves the company
• C. Arranging a back-up test environment in case the existing one fails during testing
• D. Performing a project retrospective meeting using the test results after each increment

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 21

Which of the following test design techniques is not a black box technique?

• A. Equivalence partitioning
• B. State transition testing
• C. Boundary value analysis
• D. Statement coverage

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 22

Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit

• A. Total number of defects foundI
• B. Percentage of test cases executedII
• C. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spentI
• D. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
• E. (i) and (ii)
• F. (i) and (iv)
• G. (ii) and (iii)
• H. (ii) and (iv)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 23

Which of the following is a valid drawback of independent testing? 1 credit

• A. Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.
• B. Developers loose the sense of responsibility and independent testers may become a bottleneck.
• C. Independent testers need extra education and always cost more.
• D. Independent testers will become a bottleneck and introduce problems in incident management.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 24

Which of the following statements about use-case testing are most accurate? (i)In a use-case diagram an actor represents a type of user.
(ii)Use-cases are the most common test basis for unit testing.
(iii)A use-case describes interactions between actors.
(iv)An actor is always a human user that interacts with the system. (v)Test cases can be based on use-case scenarios.
(vi) Use-case testing will often identify gaps not found by testing individual components.

• A. ii, iii, iv, v
• B. i, iii, v, vi
• C. i, ii, iv, v
• D. iii, iv, v, vi

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 25

Which of the following is a consideration when deploying test execution tools? [K1]

• A. Data-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools
• B. Recorded manual tests may become unstable in use
• C. Keyword-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools
• D. Expected results for tests are not required because the tool generates expected results

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 26

Which is not a major task of test implementation and execution?

• A. Develop and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally, preparing test harness and writing automated test scripts.
• B. Logging the outcome of test execution and recording the identities and versions of the software under test, test tools and testware.
• C. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
• D. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 27


The decision table above reflects a golf club's pricing structure for green fees and buggy/cart hire. What is the expected result (actions) for each of the following two test cases (TC1 and TC2)?
* TC 1 - Paul is not a full member, is a Loyalty Card holder and requests to play 18 holes with a buggy/cart
* TC 2 - Cheryl is not at full member, doesn't have a Loyalty Card and requests to play 9 holes with a buggy/cart

• A. TC1 - £23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £21 total charge including buggy hire
• B. TC1 - £18 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £16 total charge but no buggy allowed
• C. TC1 - £23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £16 total charge but no buggy allowed
• D. TC1 - £17 total charges but no buggy allowed; TC2 - £21 total charge including buggy hire

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 28

Which of the following would NOT be a common metric used for monitoring test preparation and execution?

• A. Number of Test cases passed and failed
• B. Percentage of planned test cases designed
• C. Number of test plan review comments
• D. Percentage of tasks complete in test environment preparation

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 29

Which of the following options describe the causal chain in the correct sequence?

• A. Error, fault, failure
• B. Fault, bug, mistake
• C. Mistake, failure, fault
• D. Failure, bug, error

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 30
......