156-215.81 | 100% Guarantee CheckPoint 156-215.81 Testing Bible Online

Actualtests offers free demo for 156-215.81 exam. "Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81", also known as 156-215.81 exam, is a CheckPoint Certification. This set of posts, Passing the CheckPoint 156-215.81 exam, will help you answer those questions. The 156-215.81 Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. 100% real CheckPoint 156-215.81 exams and revised by experts!

Free demo questions for CheckPoint 156-215.81 Exam Dumps Below:

NEW QUESTION 1
Which of the following is used to extract state related information from packets and store that information in state tables?

  • A. STATE Engine
  • B. TRACK Engine
  • C. RECORD Engine
  • D. INSPECT Engine

Answer: D

Explanation:
Stateful Inspection, the packet is intercepted at the network layer, but then the INSPECT Engine takes over.
It extracts state-related information required for the security decision from all application layers and maintains this information in dynamic state tables for evaluating subsequent connection attempts.

NEW QUESTION 2
You are going to perform a major upgrade. Which back up solution should you use to ensure your database can be restored on that device?

  • A. backup
  • B. logswitch
  • C. Database Revision
  • D. snapshot

Answer: D

Explanation:
The snapshot creates a binary image of the entire root (lv_current) disk partition. This includes Check Point products, configuration, and operating system.
Starting in R77.10, exporting an image from one machine and importing that image on another machine of the same type is supported.
The log partition is not included in the snapshot. Therefore, any locally stored FireWall logs will not be save

NEW QUESTION 3
Check Point ClusterXL Active/Active deployment is used when:

  • A. Only when there is Multicast solution set up
  • B. There is Load Sharing solution set up
  • C. Only when there is Unicast solution set up
  • D. There is High Availability solution set up

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4
In SmartEvent, a correlation unit (CU) is used to do what?

  • A. Collect security gateway logs, Index the logs and then compress the logs.
  • B. Receive firewall and other software blade logs in a region and forward them to the primary log server.
  • C. Analyze log entries and identify events.
  • D. Send SAM block rules to the firewalls during a DOS attack.

Answer: C

Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.40/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.40_LoggingAndMonitoring_Ad

NEW QUESTION 5
Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

  • A. All-in-one (stand-alone)
  • B. CloudGuard
  • C. Distributed
  • D. Bridge Mode

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6
Which Check Point software blade provides Application Security and identity control?

  • A. Identity Awareness
  • B. Data Loss Prevention
  • C. URL Filtering
  • D. Application Control

Answer: D

Explanation:
Check Point Application Control provides the industry’s strongest application security and identity control to organizations of all sizes.

NEW QUESTION 7
When defining group-based access in an LDAP environment with Identity Awareness, what is the BEST object type to represent an LDAP group in a Security Policy?

  • A. Access Role
  • B. User Group
  • C. SmartDirectory Group
  • D. Group Template

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8
What is the purpose of the Stealth Rule?

  • A. To prevent users from directly connecting to a Security Gateway.
  • B. To reduce the number of rules in the database.
  • C. To reduce the amount of logs for performance issues.
  • D. To hide the gateway from the Internet.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9
Where can administrator edit a list of trusted SmartConsole clients?

  • A. cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server.
  • B. In cpconfig on a Security Management Server, in the WebUI logged into a Security Management Server, in SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients.
  • C. WebUI client logged to Security Management Server, SmartDashboard: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients, via cpconfig on a Security Gateway.
  • D. Only using SmartConsole: Manage and Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Advanced > Trusted Clients.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10
Vanessa is attempting to log into the Gaia Web Portal. She is able to login successfully. Then she tries the same username and password for SmartConsole but gets the message in the screenshot image below. She has checked that the IP address of the Server is correct and the username and password she used to login into Gaia is also correct.
156-215.81 dumps exhibit
What is the most likely reason?

  • A. Check Point R80 SmartConsole authentication is more secure than in previous versions and Vanessa requires a special authentication key for R80 SmartConsol
  • B. Check that the correct key details are used.
  • C. Check Point Management software authentication details are not automatically the same as the Operating System authentication detail
  • D. Check that she is using the correct details.
  • E. SmartConsole Authentication is not allowed for Vanessa until a Super administrator has logged in first and cleared any other administrator sessions.
  • F. Authentication failed because Vanessa’s username is not allowed in the new Threat Prevention console update checks even though these checks passed with Gaia.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 11
You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don’t have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher. How can you enable them?

  • A. fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on
  • B. fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9
  • C. fw ctl multik set_mode 9
  • D. fw ctl miltik pq enable

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 12
The Network Operations Center administrator needs access to Check Point Security devices mostly for troubleshooting purposes. You do not want to give her access to the expert mode, but she still should be able to run tcpdump. How can you achieve this requirement?

  • A. Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.Create a new access role.Add tcpdump to the role.Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.
  • B. Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.Create a new access role.Add tcpdump to the role.Createnew user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.
  • C. Create a new access role.Add expert-mode access to the role.Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.
  • D. Create a new access role.Add expert-mode access to the role.Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 13
What is UserCheck?

  • A. Messaging tool user to verify a user’s credentials
  • B. Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access
  • C. Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network
  • D. Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created

Answer: B

Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R81/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R81_NextGenSecurityGateway_Guide/T

NEW QUESTION 14
Name the authentication method that requires token authenticator.

  • A. SecureID
  • B. Radius
  • C. DynamicID
  • D. TACACS

Answer: A

Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R81/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R81_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide

NEW QUESTION 15
Which of the following is an authentication method used for Identity Awareness?

  • A. SSL
  • B. Captive Portal
  • C. PKI
  • D. RSA

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 16
What data MUST be supplied to the SmartConsole System Restore window to restore a backup?

  • A. Server, Username, Password, Path, Version
  • B. Username, Password, Path, Version
  • C. Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Destination Path
  • D. Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path

Answer: D

Explanation:
References:

NEW QUESTION 17
Fill in the blank: _______ is the Gaia command that turns the server off.

  • A. sysdown
  • B. exit
  • C. halt
  • D. shut-down

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 18
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